Mr. T Posted September 11, 2006 Posted September 11, 2006 First of all I apologise if this has already been discussed, but I just sat down at the computer. On the penalty on Royal which occurred on the 3rd and 2, the pass was completed to Price, he clearly had the first down, the penalty occurred after the fact, why was the yardage not marked off after the the first down. Shouldn't it have been 1st and 20, instead of 3rd and 2 all over again? I know the 10 yards was marked off from the spot of the foul, but since the play was already good for a first down, why no first down? Am I missing something?
Dr. K Posted September 11, 2006 Posted September 11, 2006 First of all I apologise if this has already been discussed, but I just sat down at the computer. On the penalty on Royal which occurred on the 3rd and 2, the pass was completed to Price, he clearly had the first down, the penalty occurred after the fact, why was the yardage not marked off after the the first down. Shouldn't it have been 1st and 20, instead of 3rd and 2 all over again? I know the 10 yards was marked off from the spot of the foul, but since the play was already good for a first down, why no first down? Am I missing something? 768878[/snapback] I had the same question. I thought the penalty should be assessed after the first down. But no one on the Bills seemed to object. What's the rule?
Kelly the Dog Posted September 11, 2006 Posted September 11, 2006 First of all I apologise if this has already been discussed, but I just sat down at the computer. On the penalty on Royal which occurred on the 3rd and 2, the pass was completed to Price, he clearly had the first down, the penalty occurred after the fact, why was the yardage not marked off after the the first down. Shouldn't it have been 1st and 20, instead of 3rd and 2 all over again? I know the 10 yards was marked off from the spot of the foul, but since the play was already good for a first down, why no first down? Am I missing something? 768878[/snapback] The penalty happened during the play and before the whistle. So it is marked off from the spot of the foul and the offensive team has the down over. It was a third down play, but the penalty was 8 yards beyond the first down marker. So they moved it back 10 yards from that spot and gave the Bills 3rd down again (3rd-and-2). It would have been a first down only if there was a penalty after the whistle.
MDH Posted September 11, 2006 Posted September 11, 2006 The penalty happened during the play and before the whistle. So it is marked off from the spot of the foul and the offensive team has the down over. It was a third down play, but the penalty was 8 yards beyond the first down marker. So they moved it back 10 yards from that spot and gave the Bills 3rd down again (3rd-and-2). It would have been a first down only if there was a penalty after the whistle. 768886[/snapback] It could have still been a first down had the penalty occurred after Price was 10 yards past the first down marker. The ball is moved back 10 yards from the spot of the foul. If that puts it past the first down marker it's a first down. This foul occurred 8 yards past the first down marker, hence it was 3rd and 2 on the next play.
Kelly the Dog Posted September 11, 2006 Posted September 11, 2006 It could have still been a first down had the penalty occurred after Price was 10 yards past the first down marker. The ball is moved back 10 yards from the spot of the foul. If that puts it past the first down marker it's a first down. This foul occurred 8 yards past the first down marker, hence it was 3rd and 2 on the next play. 768893[/snapback] Correct. I should have been more clear. I meant if it was a personal foul after the whistle and the play was over, it would have been a first down and then 15 yards back.
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