st pete gogolak Posted January 17 Author Posted January 17 Many good points brought up. Maybe the rule is like democracy. It’s imperfect but better than any other system. Quote
frostbitmic Posted January 17 Posted January 17 I recall about 10-15 years ago a Bills player hit a patriot WR hard, knocked him out cold, the patriot fumbled the ball, yet he recovered the fumble while unconscious because his foot touched the ball while the rest of his body was out of bounds Quote
dollars 2 donuts Posted January 17 Posted January 17 (edited) Recovery of a ball from a player in bounds, regardless of who touches him (whether that player making contact with him is in bounds or not), or some other player “touches the ball but does not possess it” (inbounds or not), should be the definitive standard. Edited January 17 by dollars 2 donuts Quote
bigK14094 Posted January 17 Posted January 17 16 hours ago, Ralonzo said: It's always been the rule. And that Steeler was smart. Its the same in basketball. 1 Quote
RyanC883 Posted January 17 Posted January 17 the rule is odd because it depends on where the ball is for everything else (first down, touchdown, etc) but in or out of bounds depends on where the person making contact is. On the other hand it allows for great catches like Shorter’s TD. Quote
Generic_Bills_Fan Posted January 17 Posted January 17 (edited) I don’t think this even applied…if that fumble grazed muths helmet(I’m not sure it did) there’s a very good chance he hadn’t contacted oob yet anyway Edited January 17 by Generic_Bills_Fan Quote
Kmart128 Posted January 17 Posted January 17 It make sense. If it wasnt worded that way a player could just be laying out of bounds and recover a loose fumble. However im pretty sure the ball hit the turf next to Pats helmet and not his actual helmet. And even if it did i think his body still may have been in the air (not touching the sideline) when ball "touched" his helmet 1 Quote
Southern Bills Fan Posted January 17 Posted January 17 The ref saying "the ball was fumbled forward out of bounds, therefore it will be returned to the spot of the fumble" is saying the Bills didn't recover it in bounds which we all saw was ridiculous. No one can see if it touched his helmet or not. The lack of an actual explanation even now leads me to believe that they were trying to keep the Steelers in the game at that point. Quote
Utah John Posted January 17 Posted January 17 The refs initially said the ball was OOB based on where Spector was when he recovered the ball. It turned out that Spector was actually in bounds. But the refs review all aspects of a challenged play, and lo and behold it looked like the ball might have hit the Steelers player's helmet. Since the refs are required to need "clear and comelling" evidence that the call on the field should be overturned, and since there was a decent chance that the ball hit the helmet, the call on the field stood. I think the rule about the ball being OOB if a player who's OOB touches it, is silly. It makes sense for kickoff returns, barely, but not for fumb.es. But as the rules stand, the refs got this right. I don't blame McDermott for challenging the call because he only knew about where Spector was. Bad luck on the challenge. 1 Quote
peterpan Posted January 17 Posted January 17 So let me get this right. if the player is out of bounds, but the ball is in bounds, that should still be an active ball? Quote
What a Tuel Posted January 17 Posted January 17 (edited) 31 minutes ago, peterpan said: So let me get this right. if the player is out of bounds, but the ball is in bounds, that should still be an active ball? If a defensive back is stepping out of bounds as they try to stop a WR from catching a ball and they graze the ball, no one would ever call that an incomplete catch. It is always about the WR and possession inbounds. If a player fumbles the ball, and in trying to recover ball they graze it but their body is out of bounds, for some reason the ball is "out of bounds" through contact. Makes no sense. It should be about when possession is gained, is the player with possession in or out of bounds? I'm open to hearing what type of cans of worms would be opened by allowing that to be the rule? What scenario would occur that would make it so terrible to allow an inbounds player to get possession even though someone out of bounds may have grazed the ball (with their helmet no less)? Edited January 17 by What a Tuel Quote
Paup 1995MVP Posted January 17 Posted January 17 18 hours ago, Ralonzo said: If anything, the preponderance of evidence was that the ball wasn't touched by the helmet, which was the question everything was asking watching at home - but which wasn't what the refs were reviewing. The call on the field was that the Buffalo player didn't possess the ball inbounds, and the replay showed clearly that he did. It was a miscarriage to let the call stand, and if the excuse is "it might have nicked the helmet" when that wasn't what was under review, then it's more than incompetence. The refs blew that call bigtime. It was obvious that Spector completely possessed the ball in bounds. You could see that in live time. Not sure why the refs couldn't see it in live time or on review. The rule is pretty straightforward that if a player with any part of his body out of bounds touches the ball, its dead there. But that didn't happen in the Bills-Steelers game. It was a fumble by the Pittsburgh TE, recovered by Spector in bounds. 1 1 Quote
pennstate10 Posted January 17 Posted January 17 20 hours ago, Ralonzo said: It's always been the rule. And that Steeler was smart. Smart for taking advantage of stupid rule. But it’s still a stupid rule. To apply, the dude who is OOB should POSSESS the ball, not scrape it with his helmet. Quote
YattaOkasan Posted January 17 Posted January 17 If a player is out of bounds they shouldnt be allowed to play the ball until they reestablish in bounds. Throw the illegal touching flag and replay the down. its not as good as a turnover but if a player goes out of bounds and then touches the ball that seems pretty clear to me (particularly for the stupid make a kickoff out of bounds call). Crucially this is different than almost all catches when a player is inbounds but doesnt stay inbounds after making first contact. Quote
CoudyBills Posted January 17 Posted January 17 20 hours ago, djp14150 said: Thr dumb rule is ball being touched by someone out of bounds make it dead. That is logical. If a runner possesses the ball, steps out of bounds, even if the ball is still in thee field of play, the play is dead. It follows logically possession or not. Quote
Ralonzo Posted January 17 Posted January 17 18 hours ago, Big Turk said: That's your misunderstanding. When a play goes to review, every part of the play gets reviewed. Be that as it may, did you see anything that would conclusively confirm that the ball hit the helmet? If the ruling was that the ball was live when being recovered but was "recovered out of bounds" (the announcement), the implication is that it wasn't made dead before the attempted recovery. So the ruling on the field must have been that it hadn't been touched by an out of bounds player. When the replay showed that the ball was cleanly recovered inbounds, they decided to also overturn the prior ruling that the ball had it fact been contacted by an out-of-bounds player despite the angles of that contact being entirely inconclusive. To let the "ruling on the field" stand, when it was a clear overturn that the Bills player did in fact recover it inbounds and then stretch to make an "entire play" ruling that isn't supported by the video, is just convoluted bull####. Quote
Big Turk Posted January 17 Posted January 17 1 hour ago, Ralonzo said: Be that as it may, did you see anything that would conclusively confirm that the ball hit the helmet? If the ruling was that the ball was live when being recovered but was "recovered out of bounds" (the announcement), the implication is that it wasn't made dead before the attempted recovery. So the ruling on the field must have been that it hadn't been touched by an out of bounds player. When the replay showed that the ball was cleanly recovered inbounds, they decided to also overturn the prior ruling that the ball had it fact been contacted by an out-of-bounds player despite the angles of that contact being entirely inconclusive. To let the "ruling on the field" stand, when it was a clear overturn that the Bills player did in fact recover it inbounds and then stretch to make an "entire play" ruling that isn't supported by the video, is just convoluted bull####. Again...that's your misunderstanding. The ruling on the field was the ball was touched by a player while out of bounds. They didn't need to conclusively see that it touched someone's helmet, they needed to conclusively see that it DIDN'T touch someone's helmet to overturn it. Now, if it was ruled Bills ball and clean recovery, that also would have likely stood since it was inconclusive. 1 1 Quote
Ralonzo Posted January 17 Posted January 17 (edited) 1 hour ago, Big Turk said: Again...that's your misunderstanding. The ruling on the field was the ball was touched by a player while out of bounds. They didn't need to conclusively see that it touched someone's helmet, they needed to conclusively see that it DIDN'T touch someone's helmet to overturn it. Now, if it was ruled Bills ball and clean recovery, that also would have likely stood since it was inconclusive. DVR is my friend... After the ref scrum Cheffers exact quote was "the ruling on the field is a fumble forward and out of bounds" On the challenge Cheffers said "Buffalo is challenging the ruling on the field that the ball was not recovered in bounds" Steratore is the one who interpreted that as follows: "Carl Cheffers just announced that the ruling on the field was a fumble that was recovered out of bounds" Then Romo postulates the following in the discussion: "Gene, I got a question from what Jim said... if you initially called it out of bounds but you didn't say it was because of Freiermuth, can you go back and change it if you can't see it?" Steratore: "No, I don't think so, I think Carl's just being rather descriptive" Not to be overly defensive but if I've got the wrong idea I ain't alone and the group includes the NFL's rules analyst flack. Filling in the blanks, it's reasonable to assume McD asked the specifics of the ruling, to which Cheffers responded precisely that the man recovering the fumble did not complete the recovery in bounds, since that was the phrasing of McD's challenge - which he went ahead with when his film guys (another assumption, also not a reach) confirmed that Spector had clearly gained possession in bounds. Edited January 18 by Ralonzo Quote
What a Tuel Posted January 18 Posted January 18 21 hours ago, CoudyBills said: That is logical. If a runner possesses the ball, steps out of bounds, even if the ball is still in thee field of play, the play is dead. It follows logically possession or not. Again this is not the case when a db who is out of bounds defends a pass from an inbounds wr. The db touching the ball in this scenario does not make the ball dead. It is all about possession. Quote
GunnerBill Posted January 18 Posted January 18 On 1/16/2024 at 11:02 PM, eball said: I actually think the rule makes sense. I don’t think there was compelling evidence last night that a player OB touched the ball before we recovered it. There wasn't but there didn't need to be given the call on the field. There needed to be compelling evidence to the contrary. Quote
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