DC Tom Posted December 19, 2014 Share Posted December 19, 2014 That's just a wildly disingenuous maninpulation of statistics. To suggest that the situation is anywhere close to equal is nuts. I think that's the point: if the extraordinarily wide definition of "rape" as "unable to consent due to inebriation" were applied equally across college campuses, the incidence of rape would appear to be gender-neutral. That just highlights the asininity of the idea of a sexual act retroactively becoming rape because of morning-after sobriety. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bbb Posted December 20, 2014 Share Posted December 20, 2014 When did "unable to consent due to inebriation" start being the standard for rape? All along, but I never heard of it? What if you're both smashed? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Nanker Posted December 20, 2014 Share Posted December 20, 2014 Rape is an act of violence. I seriously doubt that very many men have been raped by women - outside of the business world. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts