DC Tom Posted December 19, 2014 Posted December 19, 2014 That's just a wildly disingenuous maninpulation of statistics. To suggest that the situation is anywhere close to equal is nuts. I think that's the point: if the extraordinarily wide definition of "rape" as "unable to consent due to inebriation" were applied equally across college campuses, the incidence of rape would appear to be gender-neutral. That just highlights the asininity of the idea of a sexual act retroactively becoming rape because of morning-after sobriety.
bbb Posted December 20, 2014 Posted December 20, 2014 When did "unable to consent due to inebriation" start being the standard for rape? All along, but I never heard of it? What if you're both smashed?
Nanker Posted December 20, 2014 Posted December 20, 2014 Rape is an act of violence. I seriously doubt that very many men have been raped by women - outside of the business world.
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