Jump to content

Recommended Posts

  • Replies 108
  • Created
  • Last Reply

Top Posters In This Topic

Posted (edited)

It was very clear to me that he had the ball trapped in his elbow and that it was still moving as he was going out of bounds. At best he had one foot in with control.

I guess we agree to disagree here.

 

Yeah. On replay it was clear there was no TD. Both the instant replays that went against the Bills were right. NEver seen the Chandler play before with one foot landing on the other.

Edited by John Adams
Posted

Yeah. On replay it was clear there was no TD. Both the instant replays that went against the Bills were right. NEver seen the Chandler play before with one foot landing on the other.

 

Either have I, that said, his foot was clearly in bounds and the play should have counted.

Posted

Yeah. On replay it was clear there was no TD. Both the instant replays that went against the Bills were right. NEver seen the Chandler play before with one foot landing on the other.

 

I might be wrong, but if his foot came down on top of someone else's leg in the field of play, it would have counted, no? Why should it be any different if it's his own leg?

 

Metaphysical question, perhaps.

Posted

I might be wrong, but if his foot came down on top of someone else's leg in the field of play, it would have counted, no? Why should it be any different if it's his own leg?

 

Metaphysical question, perhaps.

 

It's a great question...I have no idea what the answer is unless the rule states clearly that both feet must touch the ground...Which may very well be the rule...I don't know... B-)

Posted

I might be wrong, but if his foot came down on top of someone else's leg in the field of play, it would have counted, no? Why should it be any different if it's his own leg?

 

Metaphysical question, perhaps.

I don't think it would have counted in that case either, much like if a runner rolls over a defender who is on the ground, they're not down until the relevant parts of their body touch the ground directly.

Posted (edited)

It's a great question...I have no idea what the answer is unless the rule states clearly that both feet must touch the ground...Which may very well be the rule...I don't know... B-)

 

The rule should be if the foot would have clearly come down inbounds when not impeded, it's a catch. So stupid that because the second foot didn't actually touch the ground it's incomplete.

 

As for the Woods call, if that's not a catch I don't know what is. Yes I understand the rules are clear but once again those are bad rules. And I've seen much worse examples of "bobbling" go as TDs.

 

Another rule that should be done away with is holding when the hold happens behind the play. Enough with the ticky tack crap.

Edited by No Cease Fires
Posted (edited)

It was very clear to me that he had the ball trapped in his elbow and that it was still moving as he was going out of bounds. At best he had one foot in with control.

I guess we agree to disagree here.

 

To me, it appeared that he had it trapped in his elbow, that it was not moving, and that as he was getting the other foot down, he brought the ball down with his other hand. I think he could have just left it elbow, but naturally brought his other hand up to get it. I don't see how they had anything conclusive to overrule it.

Edited by Marauder'sMicro
Posted

Another rule that should be done away with is holding when the hold happens behind the play. Enough with the ticky tack crap.

That's one way soccer does it right. If there is a foul but the team still maintains advantage the play continues. And for things like offside, if the offside player doesn't get involved in the play, the play also continues.

×
×
  • Create New...