DC Tom Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Interesting on how someone who has been proven wrong multiple times(YOU) is an authority? Rote repetition of incorrect information isn't proof - you haven't proven anyone wrong yet. (Still waiting for you to explain how the Jews came from Anatolia - do you even know where Anatolia is, for that matter?) But you're finally getting that "debate" you wanted, so that's something. I'm done with you. So run along scamp. Done with me again? That's like, what, a whole 3.5 times you've said that.
ieatcrayonz Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Interesting on how someone who has been proven wrong multiple times(YOU) is an authority? I'm done with you. So run along scamp. Do the acidic Jews come from a different place tha regular Jews? And why do they have to be so mean that they get a nickname like that?
DC Tom Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Do the acidic Jews come from a different place tha regular Jews? That's really eating at you, isn't it?
3rdnlng Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 (edited) Do the acidic Jews come from a different place tha regular Jews? And why do they have to be so mean that they get a nickname like that? They don't go down easily. Seriously (or not) if you remember correctly, calling someone an Acidic Jew was a polite way of conveying their tendencies towards being an "alky". Both you and "Gel" stole it from me. Edited June 20, 2011 by 3rdnlng
Rob's House Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Can someone fill me in on the back story of this 3.5 thing? And to Tom and the troll, regarding the topic that got us on this war of the word nerds, I looked it up and normalcy was non-standard until Harding's campaign brought this hick-speak word out of extinction. Brits look at that the way Spaniards look at the shwag dirt version of their language spoken in Mexico. Do the acidic Jews come from a different place tha regular Jews? And why do they have to be so mean that they get a nickname like that? They were the ones that financed the LSD trade in the 60s.
DC Tom Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Can someone fill me in on the back story of this 3.5 thing? Some idiot (Holcomb's Arm, current Edward's Arm) argued that the true expected value of the roll of a single die was 3.5, and anything other than that result was measurement error. And to Tom and the troll, regarding the topic that got us on this war of the word nerds, I looked it up and normalcy was non-standard until Harding's campaign brought this hick-speak word out of extinction. Brits look at that the way Spaniards look at the shwag dirt version of their language spoken in Mexico. Looked it up where? I found references in the etymology of the word that traced all the way back to the 1840's.
DPowlus Posted June 20, 2011 Author Posted June 20, 2011 Can someone fill me in on the back story of this 3.5 thing? And to Tom and the troll, regarding the topic that got us on this war of the word nerds, I looked it up and normalcy was non-standard until Harding's campaign brought this hick-speak word out of extinction. Brits look at that the way Spaniards look at the shwag dirt version of their language spoken in Mexico. Rob, it was in dictionaries as early as the 1850's. Fact. It wasn't a southern term either, it was popularized by German immigrants. Much like most of our Americanized version of the English language it seems ignorant to the Brits, but language is an evolving thing and it's not going to stop anytime soon. NORMALCY is a word. It's in the dictionary and it's been there since before the Civil War. Drop it.
DC Tom Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 It wasn't a southern term either, it was popularized by German immigrants. No, it wasn't. It's not a Germanic root, you retard. "Normalcy" derives from "normal", has its roots in the Latin norma. It entered the German language via English, not the other way around, you pinhead.
DPowlus Posted June 20, 2011 Author Posted June 20, 2011 No, it wasn't. It's not a Germanic root, you retard. "Normalcy" derives from "normal", has its roots in the Latin norma. It entered the German language via English, not the other way around, you pinhead. I never said it was a GERMAN word you moron, I said GERMAN IMMIGRANTS POPULARIZED IT by not saying NORMALITY correctly! You stupid !@#$ing moron, how come your parents didn't just keep your head under the bath water when you were an infant? Jesus Christ you're just so damned ignorant, you smug little punk! I'm god knows how many years your elder and on my worst day I could kick the living hell out of you, just shut your trap damn! "Children are to be seen not heard"
DC Tom Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 I never said it was a GERMAN word you moron, I said GERMAN IMMIGRANTS POPULARIZED IT by not saying NORMALITY correctly! You stupid !@#$ing moron, how come your parents didn't just keep your head under the bath water when you were an infant? Jesus Christ you're just so damned ignorant, you smug little punk! I'm god knows how many years your elder and on my worst day I could kick the living hell out of you, just shut your trap damn! "Children are to be seen not heard" I'm ignorant? You're the one that thinks the Germans introduced into English words that English introduced into German, that the Rhine valley is Slavic, and that Yiddish is Mongolian.
DPowlus Posted June 20, 2011 Author Posted June 20, 2011 I'm ignorant? You're the one that thinks the Germans introduced into English words that English introduced into German, that the Rhine valley is Slavic, and that Yiddish is Mongolian. The Germn immigrants popularized the term which became an official word. It was done by mistake! As for the German language having little influence on English? You're an idiot! It's the closest language to ENGLISH YOU MORON! ENGLISH CAME FROM GERMAN you !@#$ing idiot! Yiddish is from HEBREW speaking peoples migrating through europe over 1200 years! all facts you !@#$ing hippie moron!
Rob's House Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Some idiot (Holcomb's Arm, current Edward's Arm) argued that the true expected value of the roll of a single die was 3.5, and anything other than that result was measurement error. Looked it up where? I found references in the etymology of the word that traced all the way back to the 1840's. You can trace "ain't" back to the early 19th century also. It isn't a word pulled out of thin air (which I thought it was) but it was non-standard and didn't become widely used until the latter half of the 20th century when the same TV crowd that pronounces Chile [Chee-lay]like they themselves are !@#$ing Chilean, thought it sounded clever or cute (or just didn't know any better) and started using it ad nauseum.
ieatcrayonz Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 I never said it was a GERMAN word you moron, I said GERMAN IMMIGRANTS POPULARIZED IT by not saying NORMALITY correctly! You stupid !@#$ing moron, how come your parents didn't just keep your head under the bath water when you were an infant? Jesus Christ you're just so damned ignorant, you smug little punk! I'm god knows how many years your elder and on my worst day I could kick the living hell out of you, just shut your trap damn! "Children are to be seen not heard" Don't worry about the nomenclature stuff with most of the dudes on this site. They're not dumb, but they don't always get the nuance and/or historical perspective. For instance, I once got into a whole conversation about Mormons and one Middle Eastern dude got all huffy about how Mormons weren't real Muslims. Ok I suppose but when we get all pissy about what type of language of branch of a religion or whatever it makes it harde to communicate. If I were you I'd just get to the point and not worry about the whole German thing.
DPowlus Posted June 20, 2011 Author Posted June 20, 2011 You can trace "ain't" back to the early 19th century also. It isn't a word pulled out of thin air (which I thought it was) but it was non-standard and didn't become widely used until the latter half of the 20th century when the same TV crowd that pronounces Chile [Chee-lay]like they themselves are !@#$ing Chilean, thought it sounded clever or cute (or just didn't know any better) and started using it ad nauseum. Rob you're wrong. It's in the dictionary (NORMALCY) that is, give it a rest fella and find something else to seem clever about.
DC Tom Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 The Germn immigrants popularized the term which became an official word. It was done by mistake! It's a mistake? So Rob's right, it's not a real word? As for the German language having little influence on English? You're an idiot! It's the closest language to ENGLISH YOU MORON! ENGLISH CAME FROM GERMAN you !@#$ing idiot! No kidding; English is a Germanic language. That doesn't mean that English didn't introduce words into German...words such as "normalcy", which is not Germanic, but Romantic (and in turn was introduced into English from French). Yiddish is from HEBREW speaking peoples migrating through europe over 1200 years! all facts you !@#$ing hippie moron! So what do the Turkic language groups have to do with Semetic language speakers creating a new Germanic language? And how in the bloody !@#$ do you ever start to think Slavic languages even enter into the discussion? Rob you're wrong. It's in the dictionary (NORMALCY) that is, give it a rest fella and find something else to seem clever about. So's "ain't", for that matter. Anyone know if "ain't" is Germanic or Turkic or Romantic or what?
DPowlus Posted June 20, 2011 Author Posted June 20, 2011 It's a mistake? So Rob's right, it's not a real word? No kidding; English is a Germanic language. That doesn't mean that English didn't introduce words into German...words such as "normalcy", which is not Germanic, but Romantic (and in turn was introduced into English from French). So what do the Turkic language groups have to do with Semetic language speakers creating a new Germanic language? And how in the bloody !@#$ do you ever start to think Slavic languages even enter into the discussion? So's "ain't", for that matter. Anyone know if "ain't" is Germanic or Turkic or Romantic or what? It comes from uneducated people, most likely(I haven't read on the subject so I'm not positive) but I think it was just a word used by uneducated people, likely the same as ebonics. Proper, common and uneducated forms exist in every language.
DC Tom Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 It comes from uneducated people, most likely(I haven't read on the subject so I'm not positive) but I think it was just a word used by uneducated people, likely the same as ebonics. Proper, common and uneducated forms exist in every language. Not what I asked, !@#$wit. I asked with linguistic group it belongs to. You have serious reading comprehension issues, you know that...
Rob's House Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Rob, it was in dictionaries as early as the 1850's. Fact. It wasn't a southern term either, it was popularized by German immigrants. Much like most of our Americanized version of the English language it seems ignorant to the Brits, but language is an evolving thing and it's not going to stop anytime soon. NORMALCY is a word. It's in the dictionary and it's been there since before the Civil War. Drop it. What're you trying to say Grand Pa? That hicks are exclusive to The South? I'll also have you know that Texas was heavily populated with German settlers. That's why they use mustard at Whataburger. And yeah, I know language evolves. In 20 years "where you at" will no doubt be grammatically correct, but I'm not going to recognize its legitimacy either.
DPowlus Posted June 20, 2011 Author Posted June 20, 2011 Not what I asked, !@#$wit. I asked with linguistic group it belongs to. You have serious reading comprehension issues, you know that... I did answer your question. It doesn't belong to any of them, it's slang in the English language dumbass. You've got many problems fella and it doesn't stop at reading comprehension.
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