GG Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Actually you do, YIDDISH is more RUSSIAN than GERMANIC putz. Russian Jews brought it with them to Prussia in the 16th century. Whaaat? Yiddish is more Russian than German? Here's a hint, a successful troll at least knows the trade that he trolls. There were no Russian Jews in the 16th century that migrated to Prussia you numbskull. The migration was eastward. IT'S A JEWISH DIALECT! IT WAS BROUGHT WITH THE JEWS FROM ASIA MINOR. IT FIRST SURFACED IN IT'S MODERN FORM IN RUSSIA DURING THE 11th CENTURY YOU IGNORANT CHILD. IT "FOUND" IT'S WAY TO PRUSSIA(GERMANY) LATER! WHICH MEANS IT WAS IN RUSSIA FIRST! YOU STUPID, STUPID IDIOT What in the world is a Jewish dialect? AFAIK, there is no "Jewish" language for it to be a derived dialect.
DC Tom Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Whaaat? Yiddish is more Russian than German? Because it came from Anatolia. Here's a hint, a successful troll at least knows the trade that he trolls. Do I smell pork?
DPowlus Posted June 20, 2011 Author Posted June 20, 2011 Whaaat? Yiddish is more Russian than German? Here's a hint, a successful troll at least knows the trade that he trolls. There were no Russian Jews in the 16th century that migrated to Prussia you numbskull. The migration was eastward. What in the world is a Jewish dialect? AFAIK, there is no "Jewish" language for it to be a derived dialect. Really? So what is a "Jew"? Is it a religion? Is it a race/ethnic group? Answer: The Jews are an ETHNIC GROUP THAT SHARES A RELIGION IN MAJORITY. Their ancestors began to flee the area known as "Israel" formerly a territory of the Old Roman Empire(Old meaning Eastern-ASIA MINOR), they began to flee during the 4th century A.D., after the Empire began to be heavily(not completely) influenced by Christianity. As Constantine became Emperor Jews became frowned upon in Rome(Italy first then points North)PLEASE DO NOT BRING UP KHAZARS-They were TURKS mostly who converted to Judaism(Though some Khazars were JEWS about 75% of them were TURKS who CONVERTED to JUDAISM(RELIGIOUS JEWS BUT NOT ETHNIC). By the 6th and 7th centuries JEWS were being run out of Northern Italy and driven into France & What is now Germany. When Pepin(Father of Charles the Great-CHARLEMAGNE The FIRST Holy Roman Emperor) took power mid 8th century he ran the "JEWS" out of his kingdom and into hiding(Most converted for public display but remained "Jews" in private, those that didn't were jailed or executed. Charlemagne following in his Father's footsteps was harsh to the Jews and drove many "Public" Jews points north in Russia and far eastern Europe. Now most people call Khazars the Jews that fled Judea first but that's not true, the "Khazars" (Now a mixed group on religious Jews for the most part) were pushed into Russia in the 13th & 14th centures. The Ethnic Jews were there several centuries before and FIRST began using "YIDDISH" according to record a few hundred years later. When the Roman Empire fell during the early-mid 15th Century many Jews began returning to areas such as Turkey, Italy, France, England, Germany and the Middle East/Northern Africa. Through many centuries of exile one could argue the Yiddish language is a mix of them all, but is far more influenced by Russian than it is anyother language, German is SECOND(Only because much of modern Yiddish slang was sharpened in Germany and Eastern Europe following the fall of the Roman Empire). The Romans were harsh on Jews, they taxed them and not the Christians(Before Christianity became the dominant religion of the upper class), Jews were hounded in Spain, France, Germany, England and Russia for much of the last 500 years, Yiddish is a DIRECT causes of their forced migrations. These are facts fellas, stop being hard headed and accept facts. Whaaat? Yiddish is more Russian than German? Here's a hint, a successful troll at least knows the trade that he trolls. There were no Russian Jews in the 16th century that migrated to Prussia you numbskull. The migration was eastward. What in the world is a Jewish dialect? AFAIK, there is no "Jewish" language for it to be a derived dialect. No "Jewish" Language? What do they speak in Israel? ANSWER: HEBREW What is Yiddish? A morphed mix of Russian, German, Turkish & you guessed it HEBREW. Haven't you read the Torah? Nope? I guess you think it was written in Chinese originally right? Run along scamp Because it came from Anatolia. Do I smell pork? 75% TURK + 15 HEBREW + 5 or so % GREEK CREATES WHAT? KHAZAR The YIDDISH IS NOT AN ANATOLIAN LANGUAGE! Whaaat? Yiddish is more Russian than German? Here's a hint, a successful troll at least knows the trade that he trolls. There were no Russian Jews in the 16th century that migrated to Prussia you numbskull. The migration was eastward. What in the world is a Jewish dialect? AFAIK, there is no "Jewish" language for it to be a derived dialect. WHAT IS NOW EASTERN EUROPE WAS RUSSIA. Pick up a history book fella, letters grouped to make words, put the together from left to right and it's called reading. Anymore ways you chaps want to be proven wrong? I thought your teachers were supposed to teach you this stuff or atleast scratch close enough so as to encourage you to venture further out scholastically? 40,000 a year and they can't even teach you poor misguided scamps how to read...
GG Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 (edited) Really? So what is a "Jew"? Is it a religion? Is it a race/ethnic group? Answer: The Jews are an ETHNIC GROUP THAT SHARES A RELIGION IN MAJORITY. Their ancestors began to flee the area known as "Israel" formerly a territory of the Old Roman Empire(Old meaning Eastern-ASIA MINOR), they began to flee during the 4th century A.D., after the Empire began to be heavily(not completely) influenced by Christianity. As Constantine became Emperor Jews became frowned upon in Rome(Italy first then points North)PLEASE DO NOT BRING UP KHAZARS-They were TURKS mostly who converted to Judaism(Though some Khazars were JEWS about 75% of them were TURKS who CONVERTED to JUDAISM(RELIGIOUS JEWS BUT NOT ETHNIC). By the 6th and 7th centuries JEWS were being run out of Northern Italy and driven into France & What is now Germany. When Pepin(Father of Charles the Great-CHARLEMAGNE The FIRST Holy Roman Emperor) took power mid 8th century he ran the "JEWS" out of his kingdom and into hiding(Most converted for public display but remained "Jews" in private, those that didn't were jailed or executed. Charlemagne following in his Father's footsteps was harsh to the Jews and drove many "Public" Jews points north in Russia and far eastern Europe. Now most people call Khazars the Jews that fled Judea first but that's not true, the "Khazars" (Now a mixed group on religious Jews for the most part) were pushed into Russia in the 13th & 14th centures. The Ethnic Jews were there several centuries before and FIRST began using "YIDDISH" according to record a few hundred years later. When the Roman Empire fell during the early-mid 15th Century many Jews began returning to areas such as Turkey, Italy, France, England, Germany and the Middle East/Northern Africa. Through many centuries of exile one could argue the Yiddish language is a mix of them all, but is far more influenced by Russian than it is anyother language, German is SECOND(Only because much of modern Yiddish slang was sharpened in Germany and Eastern Europe following the fall of the Roman Empire). The Romans were harsh on Jews, they taxed them and not the Christians(Before Christianity became the dominant religion of the upper class), Jews were hounded in Spain, France, Germany, England and Russia for much of the last 500 years, Yiddish is a DIRECT causes of their forced migrations. These are facts fellas, stop being hard headed and accept facts. No "Jewish" Language? What do they speak in Israel? ANSWER: HEBREW What is Yiddish? A morphed mix of Russian, German, Turkish & you guessed it HEBREW. Haven't you read the Torah? Nope? I guess you think it was written in Chinese originally right? Run along scamp 75% TURK + 15 HEBREW + 5 or so % GREEK CREATES WHAT? KHAZAR The YIDDISH IS NOT AN ANATOLIAN LANGUAGE! WHAT IS NOW EASTERN EUROPE WAS RUSSIA. Pick up a history book fella, letters grouped to make words, put the together from left to right and it's called reading. Anymore ways you chaps want to be proven wrong? I thought your teachers were supposed to teach you this stuff or atleast scratch close enough so as to encourage you to venture further out scholastically? 40,000 a year and they can't even teach you poor misguided scamps how to read... You would figure a person with a high intellect would actually refer to "Hebrew" and not "Jewish" when talking about formal languages. Unless one is a failed troll. PS - ask someone who knows Yiddish to walk the streets of Berlin & Moscow, and see which group would understand him more. You should also should know better than to come to a Buffalo Bills board and claim that Poland was part of Russia in middle ages. Edited June 20, 2011 by GG
DPowlus Posted June 20, 2011 Author Posted June 20, 2011 Poland? So Jews only lived in Poland? Lsten up scamps, it wasn't disney land and i never said it was strongly influenced by either language(german or russian) I said it was developed in RUSSIA while JEWS had been there following conflicts with the Western Roman Empire. THESE ARE FACTS, you CANNOT ARGUE FACTS YOU IDIOT and please run along now. Consult a Jew? How brilliant! Where should we go to look for one? I'm retired! I play golf with the rest of the AARP crowd, I have many Jewish friends and have a close friend who speaks Yiddish. Listen up pup, Alzheimer's has robbed me of more knowledge than you've got tinking around in wasted mind. Get a clue scamp and run along.
EC-Bills Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Is Scheisskopf good for everyone, then? Nein, Beschissener idiot ist besser.
/dev/null Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Nein, Beschissener idiot ist besser. Auta miqula orqu
....lybob Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Auta miqula orqu Llie n'vanima ar' lle atara lanneina
GG Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Poland? So Jews only lived in Poland? Lsten up scamps, it wasn't disney land and i never said it was strongly influenced by either language(german or russian) I said it was developed in RUSSIA while JEWS had been there following conflicts with the Western Roman Empire. THESE ARE FACTS, you CANNOT ARGUE FACTS YOU IDIOT and please run along now. Consult a Jew? How brilliant! Where should we go to look for one? I'm retired! I play golf with the rest of the AARP crowd, I have many Jewish friends and have a close friend who speaks Yiddish. Listen up pup, Alzheimer's has robbed me of more knowledge than you've got tinking around in wasted mind. Get a clue scamp and run along. Enough backtracking in this response to make Weiner blush. You're not even a good troll. Try another site.
....lybob Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Nadorhuan Tanya awra!Dina Saurar! I'quelin Mori'Quessier naa ba Mori'Quessir!Kwara sina ten'amin Lindar Menelya
KD in CA Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Damn Jews. They even cause awesome threads like this one to be hijacked!
DC Tom Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 75% TURK + 15 HEBREW + 5 or so % GREEK CREATES WHAT? KHAZAR The YIDDISH IS NOT AN ANATOLIAN LANGUAGE! There's no such linguistic family as "ANATOLIAN". I think you mean Turkic...which would be correct, Yiddish is not a Turkic language, it's Germanic. But you're the assmunch that said the Jews came from Anatolia. WHAT IS NOW EASTERN EUROPE WAS RUSSIA. Pick up a history book fella, letters grouped to make words, put the together from left to right and it's called reading. In the time frame you're discussing (11th century AD), "Russia" didn't even exist - in as much as it did, it was Viking settlements (The "Rus'" were Scandanavians who made their way down trade routes from modern St. Petersburg to Kiev, and ultimately founded the first Rus' state centered on Kiev). Poland at the time (as well as Hungary - hence, most of Eastern Europe) were independent kingdoms. Russia, in any approximation of the sense you're using it in, didn't exist until the Crimean Tatars were defeated as a political power in 1480.
DPowlus Posted June 20, 2011 Author Posted June 20, 2011 There's no such linguistic family as "ANATOLIAN". I think you mean Turkic...which would be correct, Yiddish is not a Turkic language, it's Germanic. But you're the assmunch that said the Jews came from Anatolia. In the time frame you're discussing (11th century AD), "Russia" didn't even exist - in as much as it did, it was Viking settlements (The "Rus'" were Scandanavians who made their way down trade routes from modern St. Petersburg to Kiev, and ultimately founded the first Rus' state centered on Kiev). Poland at the time (as well as Hungary - hence, most of Eastern Europe) were independent kingdoms. Russia, in any approximation of the sense you're using it in, didn't exist until the Crimean Tatars were defeated as a political power in 1480. Kievan Rus (THE STATE THAT SPAWNED WHAT IS CALLED RUSSIA TODAY). Your point that it went by a different name thus is invalid? So what was Italy to Rome? America once was nothing but a handful of colonies BUT the branch that created them spawned neighboring regions to become their own (Thus giving validity to any reference of them as "American". Kievan Rus was the 3rd empire that created and developed the "Modern" Russian culture, custom and layout of historical sense. So yet again Tom, pick up a book and STOP reading a 1000th of a book in some internet article. Also Tom one could argue that most of Europe was GERMANIC at SOME POINT, as much as those "Kingdoms" as you had put it were uninfluenced by The PEOPLES that settled what is NOW Russia. How many kingdoms existed in England before total rule by one King? How many Kings held title in these Germanic areas? I tried to put it in terms MOST would understand, I wouldn't refer to Germany today by digging up some ancient name for folks 1000 years ago, the idea is to trace roots and Tom you're missing the point. Names of Nations & Cities change often throughout history, perhaps the next time we talk about Pyramids and such it'd be best to refer to Egypt as Mizraim?
DC Tom Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Kievan Rus (THE STATE THAT SPAWNED WHAT IS CALLED RUSSIA TODAY). Your point that it went by a different name thus is invalid? So what was Italy to Rome? America once was nothing but a handful of colonies BUT the branch that created them spawned neighboring regions to become their own (Thus giving validity to any reference of them as "American". Kievan Rus was the 3rd empire that created and developed the "Modern" Russian culture, custom and layout of historical sense. So yet again Tom, pick up a book and STOP reading a 1000th of a book in some internet article. Also Tom one could argue that most of Europe was GERMANIC at SOME POINT, as much as those "Kingdoms" as you had put it were uninfluenced by The PEOPLES that settled what is NOW Russia. How many kingdoms existed in England before total rule by one King? How many Kings held title in these Germanic areas? I tried to put it in terms MOST would understand, I wouldn't refer to Germany today by digging up some ancient name for folks 1000 years ago, the idea is to trace roots and Tom you're missing the point. Names of Nations & Cities change often throughout history, perhaps the next time we talk about Pyramids and such it'd be best to refer to Egypt as Mizraim? Stop confusing linguistics with geography, moron. You can't argue that most of Europe was "Germanic" since 1) it wasn't, and 2) it's a linguistic term, not a geographic or cultural one. And Kievan Rus is not the precursor to the modern Russian state - it was destroyed by the Mongols; there's a two-century gap between the Nordic principalities of Kiev and the slavic Muscovy, which incedentally puts 400 years between the germination of the Yiddish language and Slavic Russia. Seems like I'm not the one that needs to read a history book, nitwit.
DPowlus Posted June 20, 2011 Author Posted June 20, 2011 Stop confusing linguistics with geography, moron. You can't argue that most of Europe was "Germanic" since 1) it wasn't, and 2) it's a linguistic term, not a geographic or cultural one. And Kievan Rus is not the precursor to the modern Russian state - it was destroyed by the Mongols; there's a two-century gap between the Nordic principalities of Kiev and the slavic Muscovy, which incedentally puts 400 years between the germination of the Yiddish language and Slavic Russia. Seems like I'm not the one that needs to read a history book, nitwit. Tom YOU'RE READING WIKI or GOOGLE, you're reading a sentence on a page and think you are correct? You're an idiot. A gap between empires doesn't mean the chinese left and russians took their place. THOSE PEOPLE ARE GENETIC LINKS, they shared culture you moron! And GERMANIC TRIBES DID DOMINATE EUROPE YOU IGNORANT PUP! The Roman Empir was constantly fighting the Germanic TRIBES! MOST OF EUROPE WAS GERMANIC in the ETHNIC SENSE. Which is why ENGLISH, FRENCH, SOME IRISH AND MANY SPANIARDS look pretty much the same! Vikings and other peoples were at war for hundreds of years which explains the eventual mix! When they stopped being nomadic war tribes and had definable boundaries their ethnic make up was refined to what you see TODAY. STOP USING SLAVIC AS IF IT WERE a people that magically appeared in the 1600's! The term "Slavic" dates as far back as the 5th century if memory serves me correct. The PEOPLE THAT I CALLED RUSSIANS (BY CULTURE and DOMINANT GENETICS are those that had that land throughout the last 1300 years! Stop arguing to argue, you're and idiot. A complete and total moron. Stop confusing linguistics with geography, moron. You can't argue that most of Europe was "Germanic" since 1) it wasn't, and 2) it's a linguistic term, not a geographic or cultural one. And Kievan Rus is not the precursor to the modern Russian state - it was destroyed by the Mongols; there's a two-century gap between the Nordic principalities of Kiev and the slavic Muscovy, which incedentally puts 400 years between the germination of the Yiddish language and Slavic Russia. Seems like I'm not the one that needs to read a history book, nitwit. Hey Tom what was your Great-Great-Great Grand Mother's maiden name? By your reasoning you're of no relation to her(I'm assuming your folk inbreed so it applies to our debate) Idiot.
DC Tom Posted June 20, 2011 Posted June 20, 2011 Tom YOU'RE READING WIKI or GOOGLE, you're reading a sentence on a page and think you are correct? You're an idiot. A gap between empires doesn't mean the chinese left and russians took their place. THOSE PEOPLE ARE GENETIC LINKS, they shared culture you moron! And GERMANIC TRIBES DID DOMINATE EUROPE YOU IGNORANT PUP! The Roman Empir was constantly fighting the Germanic TRIBES! MOST OF EUROPE WAS GERMANIC in the ETHNIC SENSE. Which is why ENGLISH, FRENCH, SOME IRISH AND MANY SPANIARDS look pretty much the same! Vikings and other peoples were at war for hundreds of years which explains the eventual mix! When they stopped being nomadic war tribes and had definable boundaries their ethnic make up was refined to what you see TODAY. No, I'm not reading Wiki or Google; I'm going of my very considerable history education and knowledge of linguistics. The Vikings colonized the greater Dnepr/Dnestr region around the 9th century, founding the Kievan Rus principalities, which were subsequently destroyed by the Mongol invasion, leading to the Turkic domination of the Ukraine and Belorussia until the 15th century, when they were overthrown by the Slavic Muscovites, who would be the actual precursors to modern Russia. The Jews, on the other hand, migrated eastwards to Eastern Europe in the 14th century, NOT the other way around...which is the biggest reason why Yiddish is considered Germanic (having developed in the Rhine valley as a hybrid of Old German and Hebrew - North Germanic and Semitic languages, respectively, with nary a bit of Slavic between them). And the only time Europe was "Germanic" was the Frankish kindgoms of the 700's...and even then, your very next statement belies that, since if by that judgement Europe was "Germanic", then Russia wasn't Slavic when the Vikings founded it, but Nordic. And you're still confusing geography and culture with linguistics. The Franks ruling France in the 700's doesn't make French a Germanic language - quite the contrary, it's a Romantic language. That's very easily verified, if you could be bothered to have a clue. STOP USING SLAVIC AS IF IT WERE a people that magically appeared in the 1600's! The term "Slavic" dates as far back as the 5th century if memory serves me correct. The PEOPLE THAT I CALLED RUSSIANS (BY CULTURE and DOMINANT GENETICS are those that had that land throughout the last 1300 years! Stop arguing to argue, you're and idiot. A complete and total moron. Stop confusing race, culture, geography, and linguistics. Really, for someone who claims to be "educated", you haven't got even the smallest inkling of a clue of what you're talking about.
DPowlus Posted June 20, 2011 Author Posted June 20, 2011 No, I'm not reading Wiki or Google; I'm going of my very considerable history education and knowledge of linguistics. The Vikings colonized the greater Dnepr/Dnestr region around the 9th century, founding the Kievan Rus principalities, which were subsequently destroyed by the Mongol invasion, leading to the Turkic domination of the Ukraine and Belorussia until the 15th century, when they were overthrown by the Slavic Muscovites, who would be the actual precursors to modern Russia. The Jews, on the other hand, migrated eastwards to Eastern Europe in the 14th century, NOT the other way around...which is the biggest reason why Yiddish is considered Germanic (having developed in the Rhine valley as a hybrid of Old German and Hebrew - North Germanic and Semitic languages, respectively, with nary a bit of Slavic between them). And the only time Europe was "Germanic" was the Frankish kindgoms of the 700's...and even then, your very next statement belies that, since if by that judgement Europe was "Germanic", then Russia wasn't Slavic when the Vikings founded it, but Nordic. And you're still confusing geography and culture with linguistics. The Franks ruling France in the 700's doesn't make French a Germanic language - quite the contrary, it's a Romantic language. That's very easily verified, if you could be bothered to have a clue. Stop confusing race, culture, geography, and linguistics. Really, for someone who claims to be "educated", you haven't got even the smallest inkling of a clue of what you're talking about. Interesting on how someone who has been proven wrong multiple times(YOU) is an authority? I'm done with you. So run along scamp.
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